Thread:Ghelæ/@comment-29927902-20161001081010/@comment-47205-20161002082611

Electric and magnetic fields are different, yes. They're derivatives of the same electromagnetic potential, but still work differently; the force is obtained from the fields via the Lorentz force equation. If you were conflating them then that explains why I couldn't make sense of your idea.

Monopoles do have a monopole magnetic field by definition; they can also be electrically-charged and thus have a monopole electric field like electrons or protons, but do not have to.